Dear REST experts,
Thank you for your development of useful software. I have some questions about GCA. I am planning to use this software to analyze my fMRI data during the simple reward task (TR = 2 sec).
1. What is the difference between simple x2y model and autoregressive model? Output data was very different each other.
2. In Granger Causality Analysis Readme file, there is the sentence said 'The right FIC showed significantly positive causal effect on the dorsal anterior cingulate cortex (dACC) (Fig. 1a). This result is consistent with that in a previous study (Sridharan et al., 2008). Interestingly, the dACC showed significantly negative effect on the right FIC (Fig. 1b)'. Is that mean that there are reciprocal connection?
3. In Granger Causality Analysis Readme file, you use one-sample t-tests in order to generate group level maps. Some studies use empirical null distribution because Granger methods are non-negative and they could not use theoretical null distributions such as one-sample t-test, which are based on a Gaussian distribution. Which one is the appropriate way to get the group level map.
Thank you in advance.
Yous sincerely,
Yuki Sakai
Thank you for your development of useful software. I have some questions about GCA. I am planning to use this software to analyze my fMRI data during the simple reward task (TR = 2 sec).
1. What is the difference between simple x2y model and autoregressive model? Output data was very different each other.
2. In Granger Causality Analysis Readme file, there is the sentence said 'The right FIC showed significantly positive causal effect on the dorsal anterior cingulate cortex (dACC) (Fig. 1a). This result is consistent with that in a previous study (Sridharan et al., 2008). Interestingly, the dACC showed significantly negative effect on the right FIC (Fig. 1b)'. Is that mean that there are reciprocal connection?
3. In Granger Causality Analysis Readme file, you use one-sample t-tests in order to generate group level maps. Some studies use empirical null distribution because Granger methods are non-negative and they could not use theoretical null distributions such as one-sample t-test, which are based on a Gaussian distribution. Which one is the appropriate way to get the group level map.
Thank you in advance.
Yous sincerely,
Yuki Sakai
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